CUET 2025 Complete Guide to Exam Dates, Syllabus and Preparation Tips

Student: I’ve been hearing about CUET everywhere! What exactly is it?

Knowledgehubforall: CUET stands for Common University Entrance Test. It’s a single, centralized exam that many central, state, and private universities in India use. Now it uses to admit students into its undergraduate (CUET-UG) and postgraduate (CUET-PG) courses.

Student: So instead of filling out separate forms for each college, I just give this one test?

Knowledgehubforall: Exactly! That’s the whole idea. CUET is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) — the same body that handles exams like JEE and NEET. It helps standardize admissions across universities.

Student: That actually sounds so much simpler.

Knowledgehubforall: It really is. Once you take CUET, you get a single scorecard and can apply to multiple universities with it. You don’t need to appear for dozens of different entrance exams anymore.

Student: That’s awesome! So is it really that important now?

Knowledgehubforall: Absolutely. The scope and weight of CUET have grown tremendously. Most top universities in India — like Delhi University, Banaras Hindu University (BHU), Allahabad University, and Jamia Millia Islamia — now use CUET scores for admission. For students aiming for the best courses and colleges, CUET has become a must-take exam.

Student: Wow, so CUET is like the main gateway to the best universities now.

Knowledgehubforall: You got it! It’s fair, transparent, and gives students from every state and board an equal shot at their dream college.

CUET 2025 Complete Guide to Exam Dates, Syllabus, and Preparation Tips

What is CUET and why does it matter

CUET — the Common University Entrance Test.

It is the centralized entrance testing system used by many central, state, and private universities in India.

It is done to admit students into undergraduate (CUET-UG) and postgraduate (CUET-PG) programs.

CUET is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA.

It standardizes admissions and allows candidates to take subject-wise tests and apply to multiple universities using the scorecard.

The scope and weight of CUET in university admissions have grown, making it a key exam for aspirants targeting top universities and courses.

CUET 2025 — Important dates & timeline (what happened this year)

CUET-UG 2025 was conducted in a multi-shift CBT format starting May 13, 2025, and happened till June 3, 2025.

The schedule was announced, and admit cards for early shifts were released before the start date.

Note: earlier schedules saw postponements (the start was moved from May 8 to May 13 in 2025), so always confirm the final NTA notice on the official site.

For CUET-PG 2025, registrations were opened earlier in the year (registration windows around January–February 2025. And the PG exams were conducted in March (13 March — 01 April 2025) across multiple shifts. ‘It’s official public notices and the PDF date sheet were released by NTA.

Action for aspirants: Bookmark the official CUET portal (cuet.nta.nic.in) and check the “Information Bulletin / Public Notice” sections before registering — the portal contains the final schedule, city slips, admit card links, and corrigenda.

Eligibility

Eligibility varies by the course and the university you’re applying to (for UG, universities typically set eligibility based on Class 12 / higher secondary marks and subject combination).

NTA provides the basic framework (age is not generally a limiting factor; qualifying exam marks and subject requirements are decided by each admitting university).

Always match your target university’s eligibility rules with the CUET subject test choices. For precise university-wise eligibility, consult the participating university’s admission brochure.

CUET 2025 exam pattern

The general structure for CUET-UG (2025) commonly includes three broad sections:

Section I — Language Tests

• Choose the language test(s) you require (English / Hindi / regional languages).
• Focus on reading comprehension, grammar, vocabulary and verbal ability.
• Typical duration: ~60 minutes for a language test; MCQs with a marking scheme applicable.

Section II — Domain-Specific (Subject) Tests

• These are subject tests (e.g., Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology, Accountancy, Economics, History, etc.).
• Each subject test is usually 50 questions with options to attempt a fixed number (some papers allow 40 to be attempted out of 50, check info bulletin). Time per subject test is commonly 60 minutes.
• Questions are aligned to NCERT Class XII (and relevant undergraduate topics where applicable).

Section III — General Test (where applicable)

• Tests general aptitude, numerical ability, logical reasoning, general knowledge/current affairs.
• Often 60 minutes and MCQ format. Useful for admissions where universities require an aptitude score.

Marking Scheme (typical)

• Many sources and official notices show +5 for correct and −1 for incorrect responses in several test papers — but confirm the exact marking for each test in the information bulletin for that exam cycle. Negative marking applies in many papers, so strategy matters.

Official CUET 2025 syllabus — where to get it & how it’s structured

The NTA publishes subject-wise syllabi on the official CUET site. Syllabi list topics for each language and domain test and are the authoritative source for what can be asked in the examination.

• Where to download: CUET (UG) syllabus page on cuet.nta.nic.in (look for the 2025 syllabus PDF and subject list).
• Structure: Language tests (comprehension, grammar), domain tests (subject-wise topics primarily mapped to NCERT Class 12 or standard graduation topics), and general test topics (GN, logical reasoning, numerical ability, etc.).

Study tip: Use the exact NTA syllabus as your checklist. Do not chase peripheral topics outside the syllabus for domain papers — time spent outside the official syllabus yields diminishing returns.

How to register & application checklist

Steps to apply (summary; always follow the live instructions on cuet.nta.nic.in):

1. Create an account / login on the NTA CUET portal.
2. Fill application form: personal details, academic history, select test papers (languages, subjects, general test if needed), choose test cities. Double-check subject codes.
3. Upload documents: passport-size photo, signature, and any required certificates (SC/ST/OBC etc. for reservation). File size & format rules are strict — follow instructions.
4. Pay the fee online (payment gateway) and download the confirmation page. Keep the transaction receipt.
5. Correction window (if announced): NTA sometimes provides a short correction window after submission — use it to fix errors.
6. Admit card: Download admit card when released, check exam date/shift/centre and allowed items.

Important: Always save the confirmation page and screenshots of payment status. University admission often requires CUET scorecard plus documentary proof of eligibility — plan ahead.

Admit card, exam city slip & exam day rules

• NTA issues admit cards in phases (admit cards for shifts/specific dates). Download the card for each test date you have. The admit card will list your test(s), date, time, and exam centre.
• What to carry: Printed admit card, valid photo ID (as specified), passport photo (if required), pen, and any allowed items. Follow the admit card instructions — electronic devices are not permitted.
• Arrive early: Security and biometric checks can take time; reach the centre well before reporting time.

Security note: Beware of fake WhatsApp messages and third-party scams offering admissions or shortcuts. Universities (e.g., BHU) and NTA have warned students about fraudulent messages during registration/counselling — rely only on official portals and emails.

Preparation strategy — 12-week plan

This is a compact 12-week plan for CUET-UG. Adjust to your starting level.

Weeks 1–2: Blueprint & basics

• Download the official syllabus and mark topics per chosen subject(s).
• Make a weekly timetable: dedicate time to each subject, language practice, and general test sections.
• Gather core books: NCERT Class 11–12 for domain subjects, a language grammar + comprehension workbook, and a general aptitude book.

Weeks 3–6: Build core knowledge

• Domain subjects: Focus on NCERT fundamentals. For each topic, read theory + solve textbook exercises.
• Language tests: Daily reading — editorials, comprehension practice, vocabulary lists, grammar revision.
• General test: Short daily practice on quantitative and logical reasoning (30–45 minutes).

Weeks 7–9: Practice & application

• Start subject-wise mock tests (timed). Evaluate mistakes and note weak topics.
• Time yourself strictly — if a subject paper is 60 minutes for 50 questions, practice to finish with good accuracy in 45–55 minutes.
• Increase frequency of full-length practice simulating actual test conditions.

Weeks 10–12: Revision & final polish

• Take 3–4 full mock weeks (alternate subjects on consecutive days if you have multiple subjects).
• Revise quick notes, formula sheets, and error logs.
• Finish with light practice the last 48 hours — focus on confidence, rest and sleep.

Daily routine example (4–5 hours study): 1.5h Domain subject A, 1h Language practice, 0.5h General test, 1h Revision/MCQs & mocks.

Subject-wise tips

Sciences (Physics/Chemistry/Biology)

• Stick to NCERT for basics. For problem solving (Physics/Chemistry): practice application problems and previous years’ MCQs.
• Use formula sheets; revise reactions and mechanisms for Chemistry.

Mathematics / Statistics

• Build speed with daily problem sets (algebra, calculus, coordinate geometry). Time yourself; accuracy is key.

Commerce/Economics/Accountancy

• Understand concepts and accounting entries; practice numerical problems for Accountancy. For Economics, focus on theory + graphs.

Humanities (History/Pol. Sci./Geography)

• For History & Pol. Sci., create timeline sheets and topic notes. For Geography, learn maps and case studies.

Languages

• Practice reading comprehension passages (editorials, essays). Revise grammar rules and enhance vocabulary via daily words.

General Test

• Practice quantitative aptitude basics (ratio, percentages), logical reasoning puzzles, and current affairs summaries (last 12 months) for GK sections.

Mock tests, previous papers & resources

• Official sample papers: NTA sometimes releases sample questions — start with them.
• Mock test providers: Many coaching platforms provide CUET mock tests. Use 10–15 full-length mocks before the exam and analyze every test thoroughly.
• Previous year trend: While CUET is still evolving, look at recent cycles to judge difficulty and time pressure. Practising earlier years’ tests helps in mapping the question style.

Exam day strategy (do’s and don’ts)

Do:

• Reach the centre early; follow reporting time.
• Carry admit card, ID proof and permitted stationery.
• Read each question carefully; answer easy questions first.
• Keep track of time — know how many minutes per question you can afford.
• Use the rough sheet properly to avoid careless mistakes.

Don’t:

• Panic if you face a tough set — move on and return if time permits.
• Waste time on ambiguous questions — negative marking penalises blind guessing.
• Engage with unauthorised persons outside the centre; ignore admission/scholarship offers that look like scams.

After the exam — results, scorecards & counselling

• NTA publishes CUET scorecards and schedules for counselling/admissions. Results come after the evaluation window (often in the weeks following exam completion). For UG 2025, results were expected in July 2025 (official date subject to NTA announcement).
• How admissions happen: Universities use CUET scores combined with eligibility criteria (12th marks, subject prerequisites) for shortlisting and final admission — check each university’s admission notice.

Common mistakes to avoid

1. Ignoring the official syllabus — chasing random materials wastes time. Use NTA syllabus as the checklist.
2. Poor time management in mocks — practice timing early.
3. Not reading admit card details — wrong centre/time can cause avoidable issues.
4. Blind guessing — negative marking can hurt; attempt questions you can eliminate options for.
5. Falling for scams — only follow official NTA/university channels for notices.

Useful checklist before you submit application

• Photo & signature in correct format & size.
• Correct subject codes and test city selection.
• Payment confirmation screenshot.
• Keep scanned copies of class 10/12 marksheets handy.
• Note the registration number and save the confirmation page.

Safety & verification — official vs. third-party sources

Only trust notifications and downloads from:

• cuet.nta.nic.in (official CUET portal) and NTA subdomains.
• Official participating university websites for admission/counselling instructions.
  Avoid links from WhatsApp forwards or unfamiliar websites — the 2025 cycle saw warnings from universities about fraudulent messages targeting applicants.

Final checklist for last 7 days

• Revisit summary notes and formula sheets.
• Do 2 full-length mocks under exam conditions (one early in the week, one mid-week).
• Lightly revise vocabulary and key facts for the general test.
• Check travel time to your exam centre and keep all documents ready (admit card + ID).
• Sleep well — a fresh mind beats last-minute cramming.

Closing thoughts on CUET 2025 Complete Guide to Exam Dates, Syllabus, and Preparation Tips

CUET is not just about memorizing facts. It rewards clarity of concepts, speed, and accuracy. Use the official NTA syllabus as your roadmap, practice with timed mocks, and refine your strategy rather than chasing every new tip. Stay organised, verify everything from official portals, and avoid distractions (including scam messages offering fake “seats”/admissions).

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Frequently Asked Questions

1) Physics — 50 MCQs

1. The SI unit of electric charge is
   A. Volt
   B. Ampere
   C. Coulomb
   D. Ohm
2. Work done by a conservative force is
   A. Path dependent
   B. Zero for any closed path
   C. Always positive
   D. Always negative
3. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The acceleration is proportional to
   A. displacement (with same sign)
   B. square of displacement
   C. displacement (with opposite sign)
   D. velocity
4. If wavelength of a wave doubles, its frequency
   A. doubles
   B. halves
   C. becomes four times
   D. remains same
5. In ray optics, the image of a distant object formed by a convex lens is
   A. at focal point
   B. at center of curvature
   C. virtual behind the lens
   D. at infinity
6. Electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is
   A. zero
   B. constant non-zero
   C. depends on shape
   D. infinite
7. SI unit of magnetic flux is
   A. Tesla
   B. Weber
   C. Henry
   D. Gauss
8. Which of the following materials shows zero resistivity below a critical temperature?
   A. Semiconductor
   B. Superconductor
   C. Ferromagnet
   D. Insulator
9. Photoelectric effect proves light has
   A. wave nature only
   B. particle nature only
   C. both particle and wave nature
   D. no relation to particles
10. The moment of inertia of a thin rod (length L) about an axis through its center perpendicular to length is
    A. mL^2/12
    B. mL^2/3
    C. mL^2/2
    D. mL^2/6
11. A charge q moves with velocity v in magnetic field B. The magnetic force is zero when v is
    A. parallel to B
    B. perpendicular to B
    C. opposite to B
    D. any non-zero angle to B
12. For an ideal gas, internal energy depends on
    A. pressure only
    B. volume only
    C. temperature only
    D. pressure and volume
13. In an LCR circuit at resonance, the impedance is
    A. maximum
    B. minimum and equal to resistance
    C. purely imaginary
    D. zero
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere falling through a viscous fluid depends on
    A. mass only
    B. drag coefficient only
    C. density difference, radius, and viscosity
    D. shape only
15. Speed of sound in air increases with
    A. increase in temperature
    B. decrease in temperature
    C. humidity only
    D. pressure only
16. The SI unit of capacitance is
    A. Henry
    B. Farad
    C. Ohm
    D. Weber
17. In nucleus, strong force is responsible for
    A. gravitational attraction
    B. binding nucleons together
    C. electromagnetic repulsion
    D. radioactive decay
18. Which law relates the resistance of a conductor to its length and area?
    A. Ampere’s law
    B. Ohm’s law
    C. Joule’s law
    D. Kirchhoff’s law
19. A concave mirror produces a real image when the object is placed
    A. at center of curvature
    B. at focus
    C. between pole and focus
    D. behind mirror
20. If two waves of same frequency and amplitude are out of phase by π radians, resultant amplitude is
    A. double the amplitude
    B. zero
    C. equal to amplitude
    D. half the amplitude
21. The gradient of potential gives
    A. electric field
    B. magnetic field
    C. current density
    D. resistance
22. In a transformer, the ratio of primary to secondary voltages equals ratio of
    A. number of turns
    B. currents
    C. resistance
    D. power
23. Unit of luminous intensity is
    A. lumen
    B. candela
    C. lux
    D. nit
24. The process of splitting of heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei releasing energy is called
    A. fusion
    B. fission
    C. radioactivity
    D. transmutation
25. The work function is the minimum energy required to
    A. remove an electron from nucleus
    B. remove an electron from metal surface
    C. excite an electron to higher orbital within atom
    D. ionize a gas molecule
26. When a dielectric is inserted between capacitor plates, the capacitance
    A. increases
    B. decreases
    C. remains same
    D. becomes zero
27. The SI unit of electric potential is
    A. Volt
    B. Joule
    C. Newton
    D. Watt
28. The area under a PV diagram between two states gives
    A. change in pressure
    B. change in volume
    C. work done
    D. heat transferred
29. In Doppler effect, frequency observed increases when source and observer are
    A. moving apart
    B. in relative motion but stationary
    C. moving towards each other
    D. stationary
30. A ray of light in glass goes from glass (n=1.5) to air (n=1.0). Critical angle is about
    A. 41.8°
    B. 48.6°
    C. 30°
    D. 60°
31. A particle in circular motion with constant speed has
    A. zero acceleration
    B. centripetal acceleration towards center
    C. tangential acceleration only
    D. acceleration away from centre
32. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time in which
    A. all nuclei decay
    B. half of the original nuclei decay
    C. activity doubles
    D. mass halves due to chemical reaction
33. The phenomenon of beats is due to
    A. interference of two waves of slightly different frequency
    B. diffraction of waves
    C. reflection of waves
    D. polarization
34. The SI unit of angular momentum is
    A. kg·m^2/s
    B. N·m
    C. J·s
    D. kg·m/s
35. Resistance of a conductor decreases with
    A. increase in temperature (for metals)
    B. decrease in temperature (for metals)
    C. increase in length
    D. decrease in cross-sectional area
36. In a double-slit experiment, fringe width is directly proportional to
    A. wavelength and distance to screen, inversely to slit separation
    B. slit separation only
    C. wavelength only
    D. screen distance only
37. In optics, chromatic aberration arises because lens material has
    A. same refractive index for all wavelengths
    B. different refractive indices for different wavelengths
    C. temperature dependence
    D. variable density
38. The kinetic energy of an electron accelerated through potential difference V is
    A. eV
    B. V/e
    C. e^2 V
    D. V^2/e
39. When light passes from rarer to denser medium, its wavelength
    A. increases
    B. decreases
    C. remains same
    D. becomes infinite
40. The SI unit of pressure is
    A. Pascal
    B. Bar
    C. Torr
    D. Atmosphere
41. The principle of conservation of linear momentum applies when
    A. net external force is zero
    B. net external torque is zero
    C. no internal forces exist
    D. energy is conserved
42. The electric potential at infinity for a point charge is taken as
    A. zero
    B. infinite
    C. negative
    D. depends on location
43. For a capacitor connected to DC supply, after steady state the current through capacitor is
    A. maximum
    B. zero
    C. equal to source current
    D. alternating
44. Thermal conductivity measures a material’s ability to
    A. conduct electricity
    B. conduct heat
    C. store heat
    D. radiate heat
45. If two vectors are perpendicular, their dot product is
    A. zero
    B. product of magnitudes
    C. negative product
    D. equal to cross product
46. A metallic wire carrying current produces around it a
    A. magnetic field
    B. electric field only
    C. gravitational field
    D. no field
47. In Rutherford’s experiment, most α-particles passed through foil because
    A. atoms are mostly empty space
    B. nucleus occupies most volume
    C. α-particles are very slow
    D. electrons are heavy
48. The SI unit of energy is
    A. Joule
    B. Calorie
    C. erg
    D. electronvolt
49. In hydraulic machines, Pascal’s law explains transmission of
    A. electric force
    B. pressure in fluid
    C. thermal energy
    D. magnetic force
50. The time period of a simple pendulum of length L is proportional to
    A. sqrt(L)
    B. L
    C. 1/L
    D. L^2

Physics — Answers

1:C 2:B 3:C 4:B 5:A 6:A 7:B 8:B 9:C 10:A
11:A 12:C 13:B 14:C 15:A 16:B 17:B 18:B 19:A 20:B
21:A 22:A 23:B 24:B 25:B 26:A 27:A 28:C 29:C 30:A
31:B 32:B 33:A 34:A 35:B 36:A 37:B 38:A 39:B 40:A
41:A 42:A 43:B 44:B 45:A 46:A 47:A 48:A 49:B 50:A

2) Chemistry — 50 MCQs

1. Atomic number equals number of
   A. neutrons
   B. protons
   C. protons + neutrons
   D. electrons in neutral atom
2. A covalent bond is formed by
   A. transfer of electrons
   B. sharing of electrons
   C. sharing of protons
   D. exchange of neutrons
3. pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is
   A. 7
   B. 1
   C. 14
   D. 0
4. Avogadro’s number is approximately
   A. 6.02 × 10^23
   B. 3.14 × 10^23
   C. 9.81 × 10^23
   D. 1.6 × 10^-19
5. Electronegativity increases across a period because
   A. atomic size increases
   B. nuclear charge increases and atomic size decreases
   C. nuclear charge decreases
   D. electrons are lost
6. The rate of a chemical reaction depends on
   A. temperature, concentration, catalyst, surface area
   B. only temperature
   C. only concentration
   D. only catalyst
7. Ideal gases obey PV = nRT. For a real gas at high pressure, behavior deviates due to
   A. molecular interactions and finite size of molecules
   B. lower temperature
   C. zero volume
   D. increase in Avogadro number
8. In oxidation-reduction, oxidation involves
   A. gain of electrons
   B. loss of electrons
   C. gaining protons
   D. change in mass
9. Benzene (C6H6) exhibits stability due to
   A. anti-aromaticity
   B. aromaticity and resonance
   C. ionic bonding
   D. hydrogen bonding
10. In metallic bonding, valence electrons are
    A. localized on atoms
    B. free to move as a sea of electrons
    C. transferred to non-metal
    D. bound tightly
11. Which of the following is an exothermic process?
    A. Melting of ice
    B. Evaporation of water
    C. Combustion of coal
    D. Sublimation of iodine
12. The oxidation number of oxygen in H2O2 (peroxide) is
    A. −2
    B. −1
    C. 0
    D. +1
13. The major product of complete combustion of hydrocarbon is/are
    A. CO2 and H2O
    B. CO and H2O
    C. C and H2O
    D. CO2 only
14. Le Chatelier’s principle predicts shift in equilibrium when
    A. temperature, pressure, concentration change
    B. only temperature changes
    C. only volume changes
    D. nothing changes
15. A Bronsted-Lowry acid is a species that
    A. accepts a proton
    B. donates a proton
    C. accepts electrons
    D. donates electrons
16. The molarity of a solution is defined as
    A. moles of solute per liter of solution
    B. moles of solute per kg of solvent
    C. grams of solute per liter of solution
    D. moles of solute per kg of solution
17. The hybridization of carbon in ethene (C2H4) is
    A. sp3
    B. sp2
    C. sp
    D. dsp2
18. The major intermolecular force in water is
    A. London dispersion
    B. hydrogen bonding
    C. ionic bond
    D. covalent bond
19. Which gas is responsible for greenhouse effect?
    A. Nitrogen
    B. Oxygen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Argon
20. In electrophilic aromatic substitution, benzene acts as
    A. nucleophile
    B. electrophile
    C. electrophile acceptor
    D. radical
21. A catalyst functions by
    A. increasing activation energy
    B. lowering activation energy
    C. changing enthalpy of reaction
    D. being consumed permanently
22. The common name of sodium bicarbonate is
    A. caustic soda
    B. baking soda
    C. baking powder
    D. washing soda
23. Which of the following is a strong acid?
    A. Acetic acid
    B. Hydrochloric acid
    C. Carbonic acid
    D. Formic acid
24. A chiral molecule is one that
    A. has a plane of symmetry
    B. is superimposable on its mirror image
    C. is not superimposable on its mirror image
    D. contains no carbon
25. The molar mass of water (H2O) is approximately
    A. 18 g/mol
    B. 16 g/mol
    C. 34 g/mol
    D. 2 g/mol
26. In electrolysis of molten NaCl, at cathode sodium is
    A. oxidized
    B. reduced
    C. neither
    D. combusted
27. The process of addition of water to alkene to form alcohol is called
    A. hydration
    B. hydrogenation
    C. hydrolysis
    D. halogenation
28. The most abundant element in Earth’s crust is
    A. Iron
    B. Oxygen
    C. Silicon
    D. Aluminium
29. In a galvanic cell electrons flow from
    A. cathode to anode externally
    B. anode to cathode externally
    C. positive terminal to negative internally
    D. salt bridge to electrode
30. The empirical formula gives
    A. exact molecular structure
    B. simplest whole-number ratio of atoms
    C. number of isomers
    D. configuration
31. Which polymer is used for making Teflon?
    A. Polyethylene
    B. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)
    C. Polyvinyl chloride
    D. Polyester
32. The reaction rate constant is independent of
    A. temperature
    B. concentration (for given temperature)
    C. catalyst (in presence)
    D. time
33. Which compound is aromatic?
    A. Cyclohexane
    B. Benzene
    C. Butadiene
    D. Cyclobutadiene
34. In chromatography, mobile phase is
    A. stationary solid
    B. solvent that moves
    C. support medium fixed
    D. detector
35. The typical bond angle in tetrahedral molecule is approximately
    A. 109.5°
    B. 120°
    C. 90°
    D. 180°
36. The major product when ethanol is oxidized partially is
    A. ethene
    B. acetaldehyde
    C. acetic acid
    D. water
37. Which reagent is used to detect unsaturation (double bond) in organic compound?
    A. Bromine in CCl4 (decolorizes)
    B. KMnO4 (no change)
    C. AgNO3
    D. HCl
38. The process of converting liquid to vapor at boiling point is called
    A. evaporation
    B. sublimation
    C. boiling
    D. condensation
39. The concentration of H+ in a solution with pH 3 is
    A. 10^-3 M
    B. 3 M
    C. 10^3 M
    D. 10^-7 M
40. A buffer solution resists change in pH when small amount of acid or base is added. A typical buffer contains
    A. strong acid and strong base
    B. weak acid and its conjugate base
    C. only solvent
    D. strong acid and its salt
41. Which element forms diatomic molecules naturally?
    A. Helium
    B. Argon
    C. Chlorine (Cl2)
    D. Neon
42. The geometry of BH3 is
    A. trigonal planar
    B. tetrahedral
    C. linear
    D. bent
43. In NMR spectroscopy chemical shift indicates
    A. number of protons only
    B. electronic environment of nuclei
    C. molecular weight only
    D. boiling point
44. The substance that increases acidity of water when dissolved is called
    A. acid
    B. base
    C. salt
    D. buffer
45. Ionic bond forms between
    A. two metals
    B. metal and non-metal
    C. two non-metals
    D. noble gases
46. The unit of concentration molarity is
    A. mol/L
    B. g/L
    C. mol/kg
    D. percent
47. Which gas is evolved when metal reacts with acid?
    A. O2
    B. H2
    C. CO2
    D. N2
48. The phenomenon where light causes electrons to be ejected from metal surface is called
    A. Compton effect
    B. Photoelectric effect
    C. Raman effect
    D. Fluorescence
49. The pKa is a measure of
    A. base strength
    B. acid strength (lower pKa = stronger acid)
    C. molecular weight
    D. polarity
50. Which of the following is amphoteric?
    A. HCl
    B. NaOH
    C. Al(OH)3
    D. NaCl

Chemistry — Answers

1:B 2:B 3:A 4:A 5:B 6:A 7:A 8:B 9:B 10:B
11:C 12:B 13:A 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:B 18:B 19:C 20:A
21:B 22:B 23:B 24:C 25:A 26:B 27:A 28:B 29:B 30:B
31:B 32:B 33:B 34:B 35:A 36:B 37:A 38:C 39:A 40:B
41:C 42:A 43:B 44:A 45:B 46:A 47:B 48:B 49:B 50:C

3) Mathematics — 50 MCQs

1. If f(x) = x^2, derivative f'(x) is
   A. x
   B. 2x
   C. x^2
   D. 1
2. The value of ∫_0^1 x dx equals
   A. 1/2
   B. 1
   C. 0
   D. 2
3. The roots of x^2 − 5x + 6 = 0 are
   A. 2 and 3
   B. 1 and 6
   C. −2 and −3
   D. 5 and 6
4. If vectors a and b are perpendicular, a·b =
   A. product of magnitudes
   B. zero
   C. negative product
   D. same as cross product
5. The sum of first n natural numbers is
   A. n(n+1)/2
   B. n^2
   C. (n+1)/2
   D. n(n−1)/2
6. The probability of getting a head in a fair coin toss is
   A. 1
   B. 1/2
   C. 1/3
   D. 0
7. The matrix [[1,2],[3,4]] determinant equals
   A. −2
   B. 14 − 23 = −2
   C. 2
   D. 10
8. The area of a circle of radius r is
   A. 2πr
   B. πr^2
   C. πd
   D. πr
9. The sequence 2,4,8,16,… is
   A. arithmetic
   B. geometric with ratio 2
   C. harmonic
   D. random
10. If sin θ = 1/2 and θ in first quadrant, θ =
    A. 30°
    B. 45°
    C. 60°
    D. 90°
11. A function is continuous at x = a if
    A. limit exists and equals function value at a
    B. derivative exists only
    C. function is differentiable only
    D. none of these
12. The inverse of function f(x)=2x+3 is
    A. (x−3)/2
    B. 2x+3
    C. x+3/2
    D. (x+3)/2
13. For triangle with sides 3,4,5 the triangle is
    A. equilateral
    B. right-angled
    C. isosceles
    D. obtuse
14. Sum of interior angles of pentagon is
    A. 540°
    B. 360°
    C. 180°
    D. 720°
15. The solution set of inequality x^2 − 4 ≤ 0 is
    A. x ≤ −2 or x ≥ 2
    B. −2 ≤ x ≤ 2
    C. x ≥ 2
    D. none
16. Logarithm base 10 of 100 is
    A. 2
    B. 10
    C. 1/2
    D. 100
17. The limit lim_{x→0} (sin x)/x equals
    A. 0
    B. 1
    C. ∞
    D. −1
18. The derivative of e^x is
    A. e^x
    B. x e^{x−1}
    C. 1
    D. ln x
19. If matrix A is invertible, det(A) equals
    A. 0
    B. non-zero
    C. negative only
    D. positive only
20. The slope of line y = mx + c is
    A. c
    B. m
    C. y-intercept
    D. x-intercept
21. The binomial coefficient C(n, r) equals
    A. n!/(r!(n−r)!)
    B. n!+r!
    C. n/r
    D. r!/(n!(n−r)!)
22. The roots of x^2 +1 =0 are
    A. real
    B. ±i (imaginary)
    C. 0 and 1
    D. 1 and −1
23. The mean of numbers 2,3,5,10 is
    A. 5
    B. 20
    C. 4
    D. 10
24. The greatest common divisor (gcd) of 12 and 18 is
    A. 6
    B. 12
    C. 18
    D. 3
25. The Taylor series expansion of sin x begins with
    A. x − x^3/6 + …
    B. 1 + x + …
    C. x^2/2 + …
    D. ln x
26. The area under y = x from x=0 to x=2 equals
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 1/2
27. The perpendicular bisector of a chord of a circle passes through
    A. center of circle
    B. any point on circle
    C. external point
    D. tangent
28. The sum of infinite geometric series with first term a and ratio r (|r|<1) equals
    A. a/(1−r)
    B. a(1−r)
    C. a*r
    D. a/(1+r)
29. The cross product of parallel vectors is
    A. zero vector
    B. scalar
    C. product of magnitudes
    D. undefined
30. The matrix identity I satisfies AI =
    A. A
    B. I
    C. 0
    D. A^−1
31. The angle between two lines with slopes m1 and m2 is given by tanθ =
    A. (m1 + m2)/(1 − m1 m2)
    B. (m1 − m2)/(1 + m1 m2)
    C. (m1 − m2)/(1 + m1 m2) absolute value
    D. m1 m2
32. The quadratic formula for ax^2+bx+c=0 gives roots as
    A. (−b ± √(b^2 − 4ac))/(2a)
    B. (b ± √(b^2 + 4ac))/(2a)
    C. (−b ± √(b^2 + 4ac))/(2a)
    D. (−b ± √(4ac − b^2))/(2a)
33. The arithmetic mean ≥ geometric mean for non-negative numbers — this is
    A. always true (AM ≥ GM)
    B. never true
    C. true only for two numbers
    D. false
34. The derivative of ln x is
    A. 1/x
    B. x
    C. ln x
    D. e^x
35. If two events are mutually exclusive, P(A ∪ B) =
    A. P(A) + P(B)
    B. P(A) * P(B)
    C. P(A) − P(B)
    D. P(A)/P(B)
36. Number of permutations of 3 objects out of 5 is
    A. P(5,3) = 5×4×3 = 60
    B. C(5,3) = 10
    C. 125
    D. 15
37. The vector cross product a×b is a vector perpendicular to
    A. both a and b
    B. a only
    C. b only
    D. plane of a and b? (it lies perpendicular to plane of a and b)
38. The solution of linear equation 2x +3 = 7 is
    A. x = 2
    B. x = −2
    C. x = 7
    D. x = 1
39. The eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are the entries on
    A. main diagonal
    B. first row
    C. first column
    D. last column
40. The factorial of 0 (0!) equals
    A. 1
    B. 0
    C. undefined
    D. −1
41. If f(x) = ln(x^2 +1), f'(x) equals
    A. 2x/(x^2 +1)
    B. ln 2x
    C. x/(x^2 +1)
    D. 1/(x^2 +1)
42. The centroid of triangle divides medians in ratio
    A. 1:1
    B. 2:1 (vertex to centroid : centroid to midpoint)
    C. 3:1
    D. 1:2
43. If cosθ = 0, θ equals
    A. 90° (π/2) and odd multiples
    B. 0°
    C. 180°
    D. 45°
44. The domain of √(x−1) is
    A. x ≥ 1
    B. x > 1
    C. x ≤ 1
    D. all real numbers
45. LCM of 4 and 6 is
    A. 12
    B. 24
    C. 2
    D. 10
46. A continuous function on a closed interval attains its maximum and minimum — this is
    A. Intermediate Value Theorem
    B. Extreme Value Theorem
    C. Rolle’s Theorem
    D. Mean Value Theorem
47. The tangent to circle is perpendicular to radius at the point of tangency — true or false?
    A. True
    B. False
    C. True only for special circles
    D. Depends on radius
48. The modulus of complex number 3 + 4i is
    A. 5
    B. 7
    C. √7
    D. 1
49. The binomial expansion of (1 + x)^n for |x|<1 converges to infinite series when n is
    A. positive integer (finite series)
    B. any real (infinite series for non-integer)
    C. negative integer
    D. zero only
50. The equation y = ax^2 + bx + c represents
    A. parabola
    B. circle
    C. ellipse
    D. hyperbola

Mathematics — Answers

1:B 2:A 3:A 4:B 5:A 6:B 7:B 8:B 9:B 10:A
11:A 12:A 13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:B 18:A 19:B 20:B
21:A 22:B 23:C 24:A 25:A 26:B 27:A 28:A 29:A 30:A
31:C 32:A 33:A 34:A 35:A 36:A 37:D 38:A 39:A 40:A
41:A 42:B 43:A 44:A 45:A 46:B 47:A 48:A 49:B 50:A

4) Biology — 50 MCQs

1. The basic unit of life is
   A. Atom
   B. Cell
   C. Molecule
   D. Tissue
2. DNA stands for
   A. Deoxyribonucleic acid
   B. Ribosomal nucleic acid
   C. Deoxyribo nucleotide acid
   D. None
3. Photosynthesis primarily occurs in
   A. roots
   B. leaves (chloroplasts)
   C. stems
   D. flowers
4. Mitochondria are known as the
   A. powerhouses of the cell
   B. protein factories
   C. storage vesicles
   D. cell membrane
5. The process converting mRNA to protein is called
   A. transcription
   B. replication
   C. translation
   D. translation + transcription
6. Human blood type with both A and B antigens is
   A. O
   B. A
   C. AB
   D. B
7. Enzymes are biological catalysts composed of
   A. lipids
   B. carbohydrates
   C. proteins
   D. nucleic acids
8. The male gamete in animals is called
   A. ovum
   B. pollen
   C. sperm
   D. spore
9. The structural unit of proteins is
   A. monosaccharide
   B. amino acid
   C. nucleotide
   D. fatty acid
10. Xylem transports
    A. sugars
    B. water and minerals upward
    C. water downward only
    D. hormones
11. Which organ produces insulin?
    A. Liver
    B. Pancreas (β-cells)
    C. Kidney
    D. Gallbladder
12. Antibiotics are effective against
    A. viruses
    B. bacteria
    C. fungi
    D. all microbes
13. The red pigment in blood that carries oxygen is
    A. hemoglobin
    B. chlorophyll
    C. myoglobin
    D. melanin
14. The genetic material in most viruses is
    A. DNA only
    B. RNA only
    C. either DNA or RNA
    D. proteins
15. Meiosis results in formation of
    A. two diploid cells
    B. four haploid cells
    C. identical daughter cells
    D. same number of chromosomes
16. The nervous system cell that transmits impulses is
    A. neuron
    B. erythrocyte
    C. leukocyte
    D. fibroblast
17. The part of brain responsible for balance and coordination is
    A. cerebrum
    B. cerebellum
    C. medulla oblongata
    D. thalamus
18. The functional unit of kidney is
    A. nephron
    B. alveolus
    C. neuron
    D. sarcomere
19. In human females, eggs are produced in
    A. uterus
    B. fallopian tube
    C. ovaries
    D. cervix
20. Which vitamin is fat-soluble?
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Vitamin B1
    C. Vitamin A
    D. Vitamin B12
21. Which organelle contains digestive enzymes and breaks down waste?
    A. nucleus
    B. lysosome
    C. ribosome
    D. Golgi apparatus
22. Which blood cells help in clotting?
    A. RBCs
    B. WBCs
    C. Platelets (thrombocytes)
    D. Plasma
23. The process by which unicellular organisms divide into two is
    A. meiosis
    B. mitosis (binary fission)
    C. budding
    D. conjugation
24. Which hormone is secreted by thyroid gland?
    A. Insulin
    B. Thyroxine (T4)
    C. Adrenaline
    D. Estrogen
25. Which plant hormone promotes cell elongation?
    A. Auxin
    B. Gibberellin
    C. Cytokinin
    D. Abscisic acid
26. The exchange of gases in human lungs occurs in
    A. bronchi
    B. bronchioles
    C. alveoli
    D. trachea
27. In bacteria, genetic recombination by transfer of DNA through pilus is called
    A. transformation
    B. transduction
    C. conjugation
    D. mutation
28. The functional group present in amino acids responsible for acidity is
    A. amino group
    B. hydroxyl group
    C. carboxyl group (−COOH)
    D. thiol group
29. Which macromolecule stores genetic information?
    A. carbohydrates
    B. lipids
    C. proteins
    D. nucleic acids (DNA/RNA)
30. The primary site of digestion and absorption of nutrients is
    A. stomach
    B. small intestine
    C. large intestine
    D. mouth
31. The term homeostasis refers to
    A. stability of internal environment
    B. external variability
    C. reproduction
    D. growth
32. An example of a vector-borne disease is
    A. Tuberculosis
    B. Malaria (mosquito-borne)
    C. Influenza
    D. Diabetes
33. The number of pairs of chromosomes in human somatic cell is
    A. 23 pairs (46 chromosomes total)
    B. 46 pairs
    C. 22 pairs
    D. 24 pairs
34. Which pigment is responsible for green color in plants?
    A. hemoglobin
    B. chlorophyll
    C. carotene
    D. anthocyanin
35. The first line of immune defense includes
    A. antibodies
    B. skin and mucous membranes
    C. T-cells
    D. B-cells
36. The process of programmed cell death is called
    A. necrosis
    B. apoptosis
    C. mitosis
    D. autophagy
37. Which organ filters blood and produces urine?
    A. liver
    B. kidney
    C. spleen
    D. pancreas
38. Which of the following is NOT part of cell theory?
    A. All living things are composed of cells
    B. Cells are the basic unit of life
    C. All cells arise from pre-existing cells
    D. Cells can arise spontaneously from non-living matter
39. The largest organ in the human body is
    A. liver
    B. skin
    C. brain
    D. large intestine
40. The principal product of photosynthesis that stores chemical energy is
    A. glucose
    B. oxygen
    C. carbon dioxide
    D. starch only
41. Which enzyme unzips DNA during replication?
    A. DNA polymerase
    B. Helicase
    C. Ligase
    D. Transcriptase
42. A mutation that changes a single nucleotide but does not change amino acid (due to codon redundancy) is called
    A. nonsense mutation
    B. missense mutation
    C. silent mutation
    D. frameshift mutation
43. The type of bond between two water molecules (hydrogen bonding) is mainly due to attraction between
    A. oxygen positive and hydrogen negative
    B. hydrogen of one molecule and oxygen of another
    C. ionic bond
    D. covalent bond within molecule
44. The normal human body temperature is approximately
    A. 25°C
    B. 37°C
    C. 100°C
    D. 0°C
45. Vaccination helps by producing
    A. immediate disease cure
    B. active immunity via memory cells
    C. passive immunity only
    D. no immunity
46. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart?
    A. Pulmonary artery
    B. Pulmonary vein
    C. Aorta
    D. Vena cava
47. The synapse transmits signals between two neurons using
    A. electrical only
    B. chemical neurotransmitters
    C. bone conduction
    D. hormones only
48. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering to
    A. cut DNA at specific sequences
    B. replicate DNA entirely
    C. transcribe DNA to RNA
    D. translate RNA to protein
49. The rooting of plants can be promoted by auxins or by
    A. abscisic acid
    B. cytokinins
    C. gibberellins
    D. ethylene
50. In ecology, the term trophic level refers to
    A. the position of an organism in a food chain/web
    B. age of organism
    C. size of organism
    D. habitat only

Biology — Answers

1:B 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:C 6:C 7:C 8:C 9:B 10:B
11:B 12:B 13:A 14:C 15:B 16:A 17:B 18:A 19:C 20:C
21:B 22:C 23:B 24:B 25:A 26:C 27:C 28:C 29:D 30:B
31:A 32:B 33:A 34:B 35:B 36:B 37:B 38:D 39:B 40:A
41:B 42:C 43:B 44:B 45:B 46:B 47:B 48:A 49:B 50:A

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5) English Language & Comprehension — 50 MCQs

1. Choose the correct synonym of “abundant”
   A. scarce
   B. plentiful
   C. minute
   D. feeble
2. Identify the sentence with correct grammar:
   A. He don’t like apples.
   B. He doesn’t like apples.
   C. He not like apples.
   D. He no like apples.
3. Select the word that best completes: She has a _______ for detail.
   A. knack
   B. knick
   C. nick
   D. nack
4. Choose antonym of “opaque”
   A. transparent
   B. obscure
   C. murky
   D. dense
5. Choose correct past tense of “teach”
   A. teached
   B. taught
   C. teach
   D. tought
6. Pick correct phrasal verb meaning “postpone”
   A. call off
   B. put off
   C. take off
   D. go off
7. Choose correct article: I saw ____ elephant at the zoo.
   A. a
   B. an
   C. the
   D. no article
8. Identify correct spelling
   A. accomodate
   B. accommodate
   C. acommodate
   D. acomodate
9. The idiom “break the ice” means
   A. shatter glass
   B. start conversation to reduce tension
   C. end relationship
   D. create problem
10. Convert to passive: “They will finish the project.”
    A. The project will be finished by them.
    B. The project is finished by them.
    C. The project will have been finished.
    D. They will be finished by the project.
11. Choose the correct preposition: She is good ___ maths.
    A. at
    B. in
    C. on
    D. for
12. Identify the sentence that is interrogative:
    A. Bring me water.
    B. Is it raining?
    C. It is cold.
    D. He likes tea.
13. Which word is an adjective? “beautifully” “beautiful” “beauty” “beautify”
    A. beautifully
    B. beautiful
    C. beauty
    D. beautify
14. Choose the correct comparative form of “good”
    A. gooder
    B. more good
    C. better
    D. best
15. Find the error: “She and me went to the market.” The correct form is
    A. She and me went
    B. She and I went
    C. Me and she went
    D. Us went
16. Fill in: He has been living here ____ 2010.
    A. since
    B. for
    C. in
    D. at
17. Select correct synonym of “reluctant”
    A. willing
    B. hesitant
    C. eager
    D. keen
18. Choose the correct word: Their/There/They’re going to the match. (select correct)
    A. Their
    B. There
    C. They’re
    D. Thier
19. Which is a countable noun?
    A. water
    B. furniture
    C. apple
    D. information
20. Choose the best concluding sentence for a paragraph about climate change:
    A. Therefore, action is needed to reduce emissions and adapt.
    B. I like apples.
    C. The sky is blue.
    D. Nothing to say.
21. Identify the correct plural form: “analysis” ->
    A. analysises
    B. analyses
    C. analysis
    D. analysi
22. Choose the correct collocation: make a _______ decision
    A. heavy
    B. quick
    C. wide
    D. soft
23. Which sentence uses reported speech correctly for: He said, “I am tired.”
    A. He said that he was tired.
    B. He said that he is tired.
    C. He said he tired.
    D. He saying he was tired.
24. Choose the best word to complete: She gave a very _____ performance.
    A. mediocre
    B. extraordinary
    C. terrible
    D. mild
25. Identify the homophone pair:
    A. flour — flower
    B. sun — son
    C. their — there
    D. All of the above
26. Choose the correct conjunction: I will call you _____ I arrive.
    A. when
    B. because
    C. but
    D. unless
27. Choose the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:
    A. The group are going.
    B. The group is going.
    C. The groups is going.
    D. The group were going (context dependent) — choose B for standard.
28. Choose the right prefix to form opposite of “legal”
    A. re-
    B. un-
    C. il-
    D. non-
29. Which sentence uses a semicolon correctly?
    A. I like tea; and coffee.
    B. I like tea; it is hot.
    C. I like tea; but coffee is better.
    D. I like; tea.
30. Select the best synonym for “ambiguous”
    A. clear
    B. vague
    C. simple
    D. certain
31. Fill blank with suitable word: She is _____ tallest in the class.
    A. the
    B. a
    C. an
    D. nothing
32. Choose the sentence in future perfect tense:
    A. I will have finished the work by 5 pm.
    B. I will finish the work.
    C. I finished the work.
    D. I have finished.
33. Which is a collective noun?
    A. flock
    B. tree
    C. apple
    D. water
34. Pick the correct passive of: “Milkman delivers milk daily.”
    A. Milk is delivered daily.
    B. Milk daily is delivered.
    C. Milk was delivered.
    D. Milk delivered daily by milkman.
35. Complete: She ____ to the store yesterday.
    A. go
    B. went
    C. gone
    D. going
36. Choose the correct modal for permission: _____ I come in?
    A. May
    B. Must
    C. Should
    D. Shall
37. Which word is an adverb in “He runs quickly”?
    A. He
    B. runs
    C. quickly
    D. none
38. Identify the error: “Its a nice day.” Correct is:
    A. Its a nice day.
    B. It’s a nice day.
    C. Its’ a nice day.
    D. Its a nice day!
39. Choose the sentence with correct punctuation:
    A. Yes I will go.
    B. Yes, I will go.
    C. Yes; I will go.
    D. Yes I’ll go
40. Choose correct verb form: Neither of the boys _____ done the homework.
    A. have
    B. has
    C. were
    D. are
41. Pick the best collocation: _____ attention
    A. pay
    B. do
    C. make
    D. take
42. Which sentence uses a comparative adjective correctly?
    A. This puzzle is more easy than that one.
    B. This puzzle is easier than that one.
    C. This puzzle is most easy.
    D. Easier than that puzzle.
43. Choose the best word to express smallness:
    A. minute
    B. colossal
    C. enormous
    D. vast
44. Choose the correct form: He suggested that she _____ earlier.
    A. comes
    B. come
    C. came
    D. coming
45. Which is an example of direct speech?
    A. She said that she was ill.
    B. She said, “I am ill.”
    C. She told me she ill.
    D. She says she ill.
46. Fill: He has been working here ____ five years.
    A. for
    B. since
    C. in
    D. at
47. The prefix “bio-” means
    A. life
    B. two
    C. against
    D. time
48. Choose correct homonym usage: I will ____ the book to you. (loan/loam/loan?)
    A. loan
    B. loam
    C. lone
    D. loaned
49. Pick the best meaning: “to call it a day” means
    A. begin new work
    B. finish working for the day
    C. call someone
    D. schedule an appointment
50. Which sentence is grammatically correct?
    A. Neither the teacher nor the students was present.
    B. Neither the students nor the teacher were present.
    C. Either the teacher or the students is present.
    D. Neither the manager nor his assistants are available. (B or D can both be context-dependent; safest standard choice is D: verb agrees with nearer subject—assistants are plural so ‘are’ is correct)

English — Answers

1:B 2:B 3:A 4:A 5:B 6:B 7:B 8:B 9:B 10:A
11:A 12:B 13:B 14:C 15:B 16:A 17:B 18:C 19:C 20:A
21:B 22:B 23:A 24:B 25:D 26:A 27:B 28:C 29:B 30:B
31:A 32:A 33:A 34:A 35:B 36:A 37:C 38:B 39:B 40:B
41:A 42:B 43:A 44:B 45:B 46:A 47:A 48:A 49:B 50:D

6) History — 50 MCQs

1. The Indus Valley Civilization was primarily located in present-day
   A. India and Pakistan (Indus plain)
   B. Egypt
   C. Mesopotamia
   D. China
2. The major language of Mughal court was
   A. Sanskrit
   B. Persian
   C. Arabic
   D. Hindi
3. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by
   A. Lord Curzon
   B. Lord Dalhousie
   C. Lord Mountbatten
   D. Lord Wellesley
4. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in response to the
   A. Jallianwala Bagh massacre and Rowlatt Act
   B. Partition of Bengal
   C. Simon Commission
   D. Quit India
5. Who wrote ‘Discovery of India’?
   A. Jawaharlal Nehru
   B. Mahatma Gandhi
   C. B.R. Ambedkar
   D. Rabindranath Tagore
6. The Battle of Plassey (1757) was between British East India Company and
   A. Marathas
   B. Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-Daulah and his French allies
   C. Sikhs
   D. Mysore
7. The Harappan script is
   A. undeciphered (as of many years)
   B. fully deciphered
   C. alphabetic
   D. cuneiform
8. The Revolt of 1857 is also called by some historians as
   A. India’s First War of Independence
   B. Sepoy Mutiny only
   C. The Great Rebellion (both A and B used in different contexts)
   D. War of the Roses
9. The policy of ‘divide and rule’ was practised by which colonial power?
   A. British
   B. Portuguese
   C. French
   D. Dutch
10. The earliest known Vedic text is the
    A. Rigveda
    B. Upanishads
    C. Mahabharata
    D. Ramayana
11. The main objective of the Simon Commission (1927) was to
    A. Review Indian constitutional reforms (no Indian members)
    B. Introduce a new tax
    C. Partition India
    D. Start industrialization
12. The capital of the Maurya Empire under Ashoka was
    A. Pataliputra (Patna)
    B. Taxila
    C. Harappa
    D. Kalinga
13. Satyagraha as a method was popularized by
    A. Subhas Chandra Bose
    B. Mahatma Gandhi
    C. Bhagat Singh
    D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
14. The famous English traveler who visited India and wrote about Indian society in medieval times was
    A. Marco Polo
    B. Ibn Battuta
    C. Fa-Hien and Hieun Tsang (travelers visiting India) — choose B for medieval travel accounts as Ibn Battuta traveled in 14th c.
    D. Captain Cook
15. The economic drain theory was given by
    A. Dadabhai Naoroji
    B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    C. M.K. Gandhi
    D. Subramania Bharati
16. The city of Hampi was the capital of which empire?
    A. Vijayanagara Empire
    B. Mughal Empire
    C. Gupta Empire
    D. Chola Empire
17. The Quit India Movement began in which year?
    A. 1942
    B. 1947
    C. 1930
    D. 1919
18. The main architect of the Non-Aligned Movement was
    A. Jawaharlal Nehru
    B. Sardar Patel
    C. Indira Gandhi
    D. Subhas Chandra Bose
19. The composer of the Indian national anthem “Jana Gana Mana” is
    A. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
    B. Rabindranath Tagore
    C. M.G. Ranade
    D. Kavi Pradeep
20. Which treaty ended the First Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Treaty of Seringapatam
    B. Treaty of Madras (1769 ended First Anglo-Mysore War)
    C. Treaty of Versailles
    D. Treaty of Paris
21. The language of Harappan inscriptions is believed to be
    A. Dravidian theory suggested by some scholars
    B. Indo-European only
    C. Sino-Tibetan
    D. Greek
22. The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was annulled in
    A. 1911
    B. 1906
    C. 1920
    D. 1908
23. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known for founding
    A. Brahmo Samaj
    B. Arya Samaj
    C. Deccan Samaj
    D. Prarthana Samaj
24. The Viceroy who implemented the administrative reforms known as the Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) was
    A. Lord Minto
    B. Lord Curzon
    C. Lord Hardinge
    D. Lord Wellesley
25. Who was the last Mughal emperor?
    A. Bahadur Shah II (Bahadur Shah Zafar)
    B. Aurangzeb
    C. Shah Jahan
    D. Akbar
26. The main center of Harappan civilization included cities such as
    A. Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Dholavira
    B. Delhi only
    C. Madurai only
    D. None
27. The Champaran Satyagraha led by Gandhi concerned
    A. Indigo farmers’ exploitation in Bihar
    B. Salt tax
    C. Partition
    D. Textile mill workers
28. The Second Round Table Conference was held in
    A. London
    B. Delhi
    C. Calcutta
    D. Bombay
29. The practice of Sati was outlawed during British rule in which year (by Lord William Bentinck)?
    A. 1829
    B. 1857
    C. 1900
    D. 1800
30. The language in which Ashoka’s edicts were inscribed in northern India was mainly
    A. Prakrit (written in Brahmi script)
    B. Sanskrit only
    C. Tamil only
    D. Persian
31. The Indian National Congress was founded in
    A. 1885
    B. 1905
    C. 1857
    D. 1920
32. The French colony in India primarily centered around
    A. Pondicherry (Puducherry)
    B. Mumbai
    C. Kolkata
    D. Nagpur
33. Who led the Salt March (Dandi March)?
    A. Subhas Chandra Bose
    B. Mahatma Gandhi
    C. C.R. Das
    D. Lala Lajpat Rai
34. Which Mughal emperor built the Taj Mahal?
    A. Shah Jahan
    B. Akbar
    C. Jahangir
    D. Aurangzeb
35. The Simon Commission was boycotted because
    A. it had no Indian members
    B. it was too expensive
    C. it intervened in local laws
    D. none
36. The Aligarh Movement was associated with which leader?
    A. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
    B. Rammohun Roy
    C. Dayanand Saraswati
    D. Aurobindo Ghosh
37. The Champaran movement year was
    A. 1917
    B. 1920
    C. 1930
    D. 1942
38. The Gupta Empire is often called the
    A. Golden Age of India
    B. Iron Age
    C. Dark Age
    D. Bronze Age
39. Who presided over the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in British Parliament? (Tricky — answer: it was an act of British Parliament; question ambiguous; avoid authoritative mislead) — skip ambiguous Q. Replace:
40. The Rowlatt Act led to which major event in 1919?
    A. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and protests
    B. Salt March
    C. Non-Cooperation Movement
    D. Quit India
41. The Harsha (Harshavardhana) belonged to which century?
    A. 7th century CE
    B. 10th century CE
    C. 3rd century CE
    D. 12th century CE
42. The Circular of 1765 granted Diwani rights to whom?
    A. British East India Company (for Bengal, Bihar, Orissa)
    B. Mughal Emperor
    C. French Company
    D. Dutch
43. Which reformer campaigned against child marriage and supported widow remarriage?
    A. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
    B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    C. Swami Vivekananda
    D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
44. The Battle of Plassey led to the establishment of British rule in
    A. Bengal (foundation for expansion)
    B. Punjab
    C. Deccan
    D. South India
45. The main aim of the Swadeshi Movement was to
    A. promote foreign goods
    B. boycott British goods and promote indigenous industry
    C. support British rule
    D. encourage imports
46. The main architectural style of ancient Ajanta caves is
    A. Buddhist rock-cut architecture
    B. Dravidian temple architecture
    C. Indo-Islamic
    D. Colonial
47. The policy of Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by
    A. Lord Wellesley
    B. Lord Dalhousie
    C. Lord Curzon
    D. Lord Mountbatten
48. The father of Indian renaissance in Bengal is
    A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    B. Rabindranath Tagore
    C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
    D. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
49. The first capital of British India was
    A. Calcutta (Kolkata)
    B. Delhi
    C. Bombay (Mumbai)
    D. Chennai (Madras)
50. The famous book ‘Annihilation of Caste’ was written by
    A. B.R. Ambedkar
    B. M.K. Gandhi
    C. Jawaharlal Nehru
    D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
51. The Partition of India was finalized in which year?
    A. 1947
    B. 1950
    C. 1935
    D. 1942

History — Answers

1:A 2:B 3:B 4:A 5:A 6:B 7:A 8:C 9:A 10:A
11:A 12:A 13:B 14:B 15:A 16:A 17:A 18:A 19:B 20:B
21:A 22:A 23:A 24:A 25:A 26:A 27:A 28:A 29:A 30:A
31:A 32:A 33:B 34:A 35:A 36:A 37:A 38:A 39:A 40:A
41:A 42:A 43:A 44:B 45:A 46:A 47:A 48:A 49:A 50:A

7) Political Science — 50 MCQs

1. The Constitution of India came into effect on
   A. 26 January 1950
   B. 15 August 1947
   C. 26 November 1949
   D. 26 January 1949
2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a
   A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
   B. Monarchy
   C. Federation with strong center only
   D. Dictatorship
3. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed under which part of the Constitution?
   A. Part III
   B. Part IV
   C. Part II
   D. Part I
4. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part?
   A. Part IV
   B. Part III
   C. Part V
   D. Part II
5. The head of the State in India is the
   A. Prime Minister
   B. President
   C. Governor
   D. Chief Justice
6. How many members are there in Rajya Sabha? (maximum strength)
   A. 250
   B. 245 (max 250) — Indian Constitution allows 250, currently 245
   C. 545
   D. 543
7. The basic structure doctrine was propounded by which court?
   A. Supreme Court of India
   B. Delhi High Court
   C. Privy Council
   D. Bombay High Court
8. The term of the Lok Sabha is
   A. 5 years unless dissolved earlier
   B. 6 years
   C. 4 years
   D. life
9. The head of judiciary in a state is the
   A. Chief Justice of India
   B. Governor
   C. Chief Justice of State High Court (Chief Justice of High Court)
   D. Chief Minister
10. Judicial review in India is a power of the
    A. Supreme Court and High Courts
    B. Parliament
    C. President
    D. Election Commission
11. The Election Commission of India is a
    A. single-member body
    B. multi-member body (Chief Election Commissioner + Election Commissioners)
    C. department of Parliament
    D. part of judiciary
12. The power to amend the Constitution rests with
    A. Parliament by prescribed procedure
    B. President only
    C. Supreme Court only
    D. State Legislatures only
13. Emergency provisions in the Constitution are mentioned in
    A. Part XVIII
    B. Part XX
    C. Part X
    D. Part XIV
14. The Right to Education was added by which amendment?
    A. 86th Amendment (2002)
    B. 42nd Amendment
    C. 73rd Amendment
    D. 44th Amendment
15. The principle of separation of powers was primarily advocated by
    A. Montesquieu
    B. Rousseau
    C. Hobbes
    D. Plato
16. The number of members in Lok Sabha (maximum) as per Constitution is
    A. 552
    B. 500
    C. 700
    D. 545
17. The Vice-President of India is elected by
    A. Members of both Houses of Parliament (electoral college)
    B. People directly
    C. State Legislatures only
    D. President
18. The impeachment of the President requires a special majority in
    A. Parliament (both Houses sitting separately)
    B. Supreme Court
    C. State Legislatures
    D. Election Commission
19. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
    A. President of India (on advice of Council of Ministers)
    B. Supreme Court
    C. Parliament
    D. Prime Minister
20. Federalism with a strong Centre is characteristic of which constitution?
    A. Indian Constitution
    B. US Constitution only
    C. Swiss Constitution
    D. Australian Constitution
21. The number of Fundamental Duties was added by which amendment?
    A. 42nd Amendment (1976 added duties)
    B. 1st Amendment
    C. 61st Amendment
    D. 44th Amendment
22. The concept of ‘panchayati raj’ was given constitutional status by which amendment?
    A. 73rd Amendment (1992)
    B. 74th Amendment
    C. 61st Amendment
    D. 42nd Amendment
23. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by
    A. Members of Lok Sabha
    B. President
    C. Prime Minister
    D. Rajya Sabha
24. The highest judicial forum in India is
    A. Supreme Court of India
    B. High Court
    C. District Court
    D. Lok Adalat
25. The President can proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of
    A. war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (Article 352)
    B. financial instability only
    C. health pandemic only
    D. natural calamity only
26. The principle of proportional representation is used in election to
    A. Rajya Sabha (some seats) and Presidential election (electoral college rules) and others — main usage: Rajya Sabha via single transferable vote for some elections
    B. Lok Sabha first-past-the-post
    C. Gram panchayat elections only
    D. Village polls only
27. The institution responsible for making laws in India is
    A. Parliament (Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha)
    B. Judiciary
    C. Executive only
    D. President alone
28. Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a declared Emergency except which right?
    A. Right to move any court for enforcement of rights under Article 32 (suspended during national emergency) — BUT right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 remains (interpretation evolved) — tricky; safer standard multiple-choice: Article 20 and 21 protections are not suspended under certain emergencies? To avoid ambiguity, replace:

28 (replacement). The Fundamental Right known as the Right to Equality is under which Article range?
A. Articles 14-18
B. Articles 19-22
C. Articles 12-13
D. Articles 21-25

29. The welfare state model in Indian Constitution is reflected in which part?
    A. Directive Principles of State Policy
    B. Fundamental Rights
    C. Preamble only
    D. Schedules
30. The composition of the Union Cabinet is decided by
    A. Prime Minister, who selects ministers and the President appoints them
    B. President alone
    C. Parliament
    D. Supreme Court
31. The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ prevents Parliament from
    A. amending essential features of Constitution
    B. passing ordinary laws
    C. dissolving the Supreme Court
    D. forming a new political party
32. India’s system of judiciary is based on which model?
    A. Anglo-Saxon (British) model
    B. French model
    C. Soviet model
    D. American-only model
33. The membership of Rajya Sabha is for
    A. six years (with one-third retiring every two years)
    B. five years
    C. life term
    D. four years
34. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
    A. Right to Property (originally Fundamental Right, removed by 44th Amendment; now a legal right)
    B. Right to Freedom
    C. Right to Equality
    D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
35. The Finance Commission is constituted every
    A. five years (or earlier) to recommend distribution of tax revenues between centre and states
    B. ten years
    C. annually
    D. never
36. Which constitutional body handles disputes related to election of President and Vice-President?
    A. Supreme Court (President’s election dispute is subject to such process) — actually Article 71 says disputes are tried by appropriate courts; typically Supreme Court. For simplicity: Supreme Court.
    B. Election Commission
    C. High Court
    D. Parliament
37. The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains subjects on which only the
    A. Parliament can legislate
    B. State Legislature can legislate
    C. Concurrent duty only
    D. Local bodies
38. The Governor of a state is appointed by
    A. President of India
    B. Chief Minister
    C. Supreme Court
    D. Election Commission
39. The term of the Chief Justice of India is until he attains age
    A. 65 years
    B. 60 years
    C. 62 years
    D. 70 years
40. Which Amendment lowered voting age from 21 to 18?
    A. 61st Amendment (1988)
    B. 42nd Amendment
    C. 73rd Amendment
    D. 44th Amendment
41. Which body supervises elections in India?
    A. Election Commission of India
    B. Parliament
    C. Supreme Court
    D. Ministry of Home Affairs
42. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
    A. 1st Schedule
    B. 2nd Schedule
    C. 7th Schedule
    D. 5th Schedule
43. The concept of judicial activism became prominent during which period?
    A. 1970s–1990s (Supreme Court expanded role)
    B. 1950s only
    C. 1930s
    D. 2000s only
44. The term bicameral legislature means
    A. two houses in legislature
    B. one house only
    C. three houses
    D. no houses
45. Ordinance-making power of the President is valid for maximum of
    A. 6 weeks from reassembly plus initial period (effectively temporary; an ordinance must be approved by Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly)
    B. 6 months
    C. 1 year
    D. permanent
46. The Bar Council regulates
    A. lawyers and legal profession
    B. police
    C. civil services
    D. teaching profession
47. Which Article provides for the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
    A. Article 32
    B. Article 19
    C. Article 21
    D. Article 14
48. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
    A. Lok Sabha
    B. Rajya Sabha
    C. President
    D. Supreme Court
49. The power of Parliament to form new states is under which Article?
    A. Article 3
    B. Article 1
    C. Article 2
    D. Article 4
50. The term of the President of India is
    A. 5 years
    B. 4 years
    C. 6 years
    D. lifetime

Political Science — Answers

1:A 2:A 3:A 4:A 5:B 6:B 7:A 8:A 9:C 10:A
11:B 12:A 13:A 14:A 15:A 16:D 17:A 18:A 19:A 20:A
21:A 22:A 23:A 24:A 25:A 26:A 27:A 28:A 29:A 30:A
31:A 32:A 33:A 34:A 35:A 36:A 37:A 38:A 39:A 40:A
41:A 42:A 43:A 44:A 45:A 46:A 47:A 48:A 49:A 50:A

8) Economics — 50 MCQs

1. GDP stands for
   A. Gross Domestic Product
   B. General Domestic Product
   C. Gross Domestic Price
   D. Gross Demand Product
2. Inflation is best described as
   A. general increase in prices and fall in purchasing power
   B. fall in prices
   C. stable prices
   D. increase in production
3. Demand curve generally slopes
   A. upwards
   B. downwards (law of demand)
   C. vertical
   D. horizontal
4. Opportunity cost means
   A. cost of opportunity only
   B. value of next best alternative foregone
   C. sunk cost
   D. fixed cost
5. Monetary policy is controlled by
   A. central bank (Reserve Bank of India)
   B. Ministry of Finance only
   C. Parliament
   D. Supreme Court
6. A recession is a period of
   A. economic expansion
   B. economic contraction/decline in output
   C. stable growth
   D. inflation only
7. Price elasticity of demand measures
   A. responsiveness of quantity demanded to price change
   B. responsiveness of price to quantity change
   C. supply responsiveness only
   D. income only
8. Fiscal deficit occurs when
   A. government expenditure exceeds revenue (excluding borrowing)
   B. revenue exceeds expenditure
   C. budgets balanced
   D. trade deficit occurs
9. The law of diminishing marginal utility implies that
   A. marginal utility increases with consumption
   B. marginal utility eventually decreases with additional units consumed
   C. total utility decreases always
   D. utility is constant
10. Balance of payments includes
    A. current account and capital account
    B. only exports
    C. only imports
    D. stock market indices
11. The concept of ‘invisible hand’ was introduced by
    A. Adam Smith
    B. John Maynard Keynes
    C. Karl Marx
    D. David Ricardo
12. Demand-pull inflation arises when
    A. demand exceeds supply
    B. supply exceeds demand
    C. cost of production rises only
    D. money supply falls
13. The aggregate supply in the short run is
    A. upward sloping
    B. vertical always
    C. downward sloping
    D. horizontal
14. The microeconomics studies
    A. individual markets and agents
    B. whole economy
    C. national income only
    D. international trade only
15. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures
    A. change in retail prices of a basket of consumer goods and services
    B. change in wholesale prices only
    C. GDP only
    D. industrial output
16. The public goods are characterized by
    A. rivalry and excludability
    B. non-rivalry and non-excludability
    C. rivalry only
    D. excludability only
17. The law of supply states quantity supplied rises with
    A. price increase, ceteris paribus
    B. price decrease
    C. demand decrease
    D. cost decrease
18. A tariff is a tax on
    A. domestic goods
    B. imported goods
    C. exports only
    D. services only
19. The Laffer Curve deals with relationship between
    A. tax rates and tax revenue
    B. supply and demand
    C. unemployment and inflation
    D. GDP growth and investment
20. The concept of comparative advantage was given by
    A. David Ricardo
    B. Adam Smith
    C. John Stuart Mill
    D. Keynes
21. Human Development Index (HDI) includes which components?
    A. life expectancy, education, and per capita income
    B. only GDP
    C. unemployment rate only
    D. stock market performance
22. Price ceiling set below equilibrium causes
    A. shortage
    B. surplus
    C. equilibrium maintained
    D. no effect
23. The term ‘stagflation’ refers to simultaneous occurrence of
    A. inflation and economic stagnation (high unemployment)
    B. high growth and low inflation
    C. trade surplus only
    D. budget surplus
24. The Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is the fraction of additional income that is
    A. saved
    B. consumed
    C. taxed
    D. invested
25. Fiscal policy instruments include
    A. government spending and taxation
    B. interest rates only
    C. money supply only
    D. reserve requirements only
26. In perfect competition firms are price takers because
    A. many firms and homogeneous product
    B. one firm dominates market
    C. product is differentiated
    D. entry is restricted
27. The supply curve shifts when there is change in
    A. price only (movement along curve)
    B. non-price determinants like technology, costs, taxes
    C. quantity demanded only
    D. consumer tastes only
28. The exchange rate determined by market forces is called
    A. fixed exchange rate
    B. floating exchange rate
    C. pegged rate
    D. controlled rate
29. The unemployment rate measures percentage of
    A. population unemployed and actively seeking work
    B. all population
    C. only students
    D. retired people
30. The multiplier effect in Keynesian economics shows that an initial change in autonomous spending leads to
    A. no change in income
    B. magnified change in overall income (depending on multiplier)
    C. negative change only
    D. only temporary changes
31. The primary sector of economy includes
    A. agriculture, mining, fishing (raw materials)
    B. manufacturing only
    C. services only
    D. finance only
32. The fiscal year in India runs from
    A. 1 April to 31 March
    B. 1 January to 31 December
    C. 1 June to 31 May
    D. 1 July to 30 June
33. A monopoly exists when
    A. many sellers and many buyers
    B. one seller dominates the market with high barriers to entry
    C. sellers collude only
    D. government controls prices
34. The term ‘externality’ refers to
    A. private cost only
    B. spillover effects (positive or negative) affecting third parties
    C. internal benefits only
    D. tax only
35. The Reserve Bank of India uses Repo Rate to
    A. control liquidity and influence short-term interest rates
    B. tax citizens
    C. control population
    D. set fiscal policy
36. The production possibility frontier (PPF) demonstrates
    A. trade-offs and opportunity cost between two goods
    B. unemployment rates only
    C. demand and supply
    D. price ceilings
37. A trade deficit occurs when
    A. exports > imports
    B. imports > exports
    C. exports = imports
    D. no trade
38. The concept of ‘market failure’ arises when
    A. markets produce socially optimal outcomes always
    B. markets fail to allocate resources efficiently leading to government intervention
    C. price rises only
    D. government controls markets only
39. The main function of insurance in economics is to
    A. transfer and pool risks
    B. increase risks
    C. decrease production always
    D. none
40. The term “black economy” refers to economic activities that are
    A. unreported and untaxed (underground economy)
    B. legal and taxed
    C. public sector only
    D. international trade only
41. The Gini coefficient is a measure of
    A. income inequality
    B. production
    C. GDP only
    D. inflation
42. The primary instrument of monetary policy is
    A. taxation
    B. interest rates and open market operations
    C. government spending
    D. subsidies
43. The ‘crowding out’ effect refers to government borrowing causing
    A. increased private investment
    B. reduction in private investment due to higher interest rates
    C. no effect on private sector
    D. increased savings only
44. The term ‘capital formation’ refers to
    A. creation of physical capital (investment in assets)
    B. formation of money only
    C. dissolution of capital assets
    D. population growth
45. Barter system is characterized by
    A. direct exchange of goods without money
    B. use of currency only
    C. banking transactions
    D. electronic transfers
46. The law of demand holds ceteris paribus which means
    A. all other factors constant
    B. price variable only
    C. quantity constant
    D. demand fixed
47. ‘Pareto efficiency’ indicates allocation where
    A. no one can be made better without making someone worse off
    B. everyone is equally wealthy
    C. market prices fall
    D. government sets prices
48. The ‘Lorenz Curve’ is used to depict
    A. income distribution and inequality
    B. GDP growth
    C. unemployment trends
    D. inflation path
49. Which of the following is a direct tax?
    A. Income tax
    B. Sales tax (indirect)
    C. Excise duty
    D. Customs duty
50. The World Bank primarily provides
    A. long-term loans for development projects
    B. grants for wars
    C. military aid
    D. short-run liquidity only

Economics — Answers

1:A 2:A 3:B 4:B 5:A 6:B 7:A 8:A 9:B 10:A
11:A 12:A 13:A 14:A 15:A 16:B 17:A 18:B 19:A 20:A
21:A 22:A 23:A 24:B 25:A 26:A 27:B 28:B 29:A 30:B
31:A 32:A 33:B 34:B 35:A 36:A 37:B 38:B 39:A 40:A
41:A 42:B 43:B 44:A 45:A 46:A 47:A 48:A 49:A 50:A

9) Accountancy / Commerce basics — 50 MCQs

1. The accounting equation is
   A. Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity
   B. Assets + Liabilities = Equity
   C. Revenue = Expenses
   D. Assets = Revenue + Expenses
2. Debit balance in a ledger indicates
   A. asset or expense or drawing
   B. liability only
   C. revenue only
   D. equity only
3. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) provide
   A. legal binding rules only
   B. accounting framework and guidelines
   C. tax laws only
   D. inventory methods only
4. Cash flow from operating activities includes
   A. proceeds from sale of fixed assets
   B. cash receipts from customers and payments to suppliers
   C. issuance of shares
   D. purchase of investment
5. Depreciation is charged because of
   A. physical deterioration and obsolescence of assets
   B. theft only
   C. increase in asset value
   D. taxes
6. A partnership firm’s capital accounts normally are credited when
   A. partners introduce capital
   B. partners withdraw capital
   C. profit is distributed only
   D. expenses are paid
7. Revenue recognition principle states revenue is recognized when
   A. earned and realization is reasonably certain
   B. cash received only
   C. at year-end only
   D. when expense incurred
8. Inventory valuation methods include
   A. FIFO, LIFO, Weighted Average
   B. GAAP only
   C. Cash basis
   D. Budgeting methods
9. Trial balance is prepared to
   A. check arithmetic accuracy of ledger posting
   B. calculate profit only
   C. prepare cash flow
   D. compute taxes
10. Capital expenditure is characterized by
    A. recurring in nature
    B. creates future benefits (long-term)
    C. small expense only
    D. personal expense
11. Current ratio formula is
    A. Current Assets / Current Liabilities
    B. Current Liabilities / Current Assets
    C. Total Assets / Total Liabilities
    D. Quick Assets / Current Liabilities
12. Accounts receivable refers to
    A. cash in hand
    B. amounts owed by customers to business
    C. payable to suppliers
    D. inventory
13. The document that records details of sales is called
    A. sales invoice
    B. purchase order
    C. debit note
    D. credit note
14. Bank reconciliation statement is prepared to reconcile
    A. cash book balance and bank statement balance
    B. profit and loss
    C. inventory discrepancies
    D. tax liabilities
15. Bad debts are written off because they are
    A. certainly collectible
    B. no longer collectible
    C. assets increasing
    D. liabilities decreasing
16. Capital gain arises on sale of
    A. current assets only
    B. fixed assets or investments for more than cost
    C. expenses only
    D. liabilities
17. If shareholders equity increases, it may be due to
    A. retained earnings increase or fresh capital introduced
    B. liabilities increase only
    C. fixed assets decrease only
    D. inventory increase only
18. Accrual accounting recognizes revenues and expenses when
    A. cash is received/paid only
    B. they are earned/incurred regardless of cash flow
    C. at fiscal year-end only
    D. taxes filed
19. Share capital represents funds contributed by
    A. creditors
    B. owners/shareholders
    C. customers
    D. employees
20. A petty cash system is used for
    A. large capital expenditures
    B. small routine payments (office petty expenses)
    C. payroll only
    D. taxes
21. Operating profit is profit before
    A. interest and taxes (EBIT)
    B. depreciation only
    C. gross profit only
    D. net sales
22. The matching principle requires that expenses be matched with
    A. revenue they help to generate in same period
    B. assets only
    C. liabilities only
    D. cash flows only
23. A bank overdraft is classified as
    A. current liability
    B. fixed asset
    C. long-term liability
    D. equity
24. Journal entries are recorded in
    A. journal (book of original entry)
    B. ledger only
    C. trial balance directly
    D. balance sheet
25. The document sent by buyer to seller to request goods is called
    A. purchase order
    B. invoice
    C. credit note
    D. delivery challan
26. Working capital equals
    A. Current Assets − Current Liabilities
    B. Total Assets − Total Liabilities
    C. Fixed Assets − Current Liabilities
    D. Equity − Liabilities
27. A contra entry in cashbook is when cash and bank columns both are affected — it indicates
    A. cash deposited to bank or withdrawn from bank
    B. sale of asset
    C. purchase of goods
    D. no entry
28. GST is an example of
    A. direct tax
    B. indirect tax
    C. income tax
    D. property tax
29. The prime objective of accounting is to provide information about
    A. financial position and performance for decision making
    B. tax evasion only
    C. legal compliance only
    D. manufacturing processes only
30. A memorandum showing increase or decrease in capital is called
    A. balance sheet
    B. statement of changes in equity / statement of owner’s equity
    C. income statement only
    D. cash book
31. Book value of an asset equals
    A. original cost − accumulated depreciation
    B. market value always
    C. salvage value only
    D. purchase price + depreciation
32. Which financial statement shows profitability?
    A. Profit & Loss Account (Income Statement)
    B. Balance Sheet only
    C. Cash Flow Statement only
    D. Journal
33. Dividends declared reduce retained earnings and appear in which statement?
    A. Statement of Changes in Equity / Balance Sheet (as reduction of reserves/retained earnings)
    B. Income statement as expense
    C. Cash flow only
    D. Trial balance
34. Depreciation methods include straight-line and
    A. diminishing balance method (written down value)
    B. FIFO only
    C. LIFO
    D. cost method
35. Goodwill arises when purchase consideration exceeds
    A. net identifiable assets acquired
    B. liabilities only
    C. revenue only
    D. expenses
36. Capital market deals with
    A. long-term funds (equity, debentures)
    B. short-term funds only
    C. money market instruments only
    D. retail trade only
37. A balance sheet shows financial position at a
    A. point in time (specific date)
    B. period of time (duration)
    C. both A and B
    D. none
38. The primary users of financial statements include
    A. investors, lenders, management, regulators
    B. only managers
    C. only customers
    D. only suppliers
39. The purchase return is recorded in seller’s books as
    A. sales return (contra entry in buyer’s books)
    B. purchase return
    C. inventory increase only
    D. expense
40. A current asset typically includes
    A. machinery
    B. inventory (stock), receivables, cash
    C. land
    D. patents
41. The accounting cycle begins with
    A. journal entries (original recording of transactions)
    B. preparing financial statements only
    C. closing entries only
    D. auditing
42. Credit note is issued when goods are
    A. returned by buyer to seller
    B. delivered newly
    C. sold on credit
    D. purchased
43. Cost of goods sold (COGS) formula includes
    A. Opening Stock + Purchases − Closing Stock
    B. Purchases only
    C. Sales only
    D. Closing stock only
44. The straight-line depreciation charge per year is
    A. (Cost − Salvage value)/Useful life
    B. Cost × Salvage value
    C. Cost + Salvage value
    D. Salvage value/Cost
45. Accounting period is typically
    A. 1 year (fiscal year)
    B. 1 month only
    C. 10 years
    D. lifetime
46. The double-entry system implies every transaction affects
    A. only one account
    B. at least two accounts (debit and credit)
    C. no account
    D. only cash account
47. The auditor provides which opinion on financial statements?
    A. Whether financial statements present fairly in all material respects (audit opinion)
    B. Tax advice only
    C. Legal opinion only
    D. Market forecast
48. Capital and revenue expenditures differ by whether expense provides
    A. future economic benefits (capital) or immediate consumption (revenue)
    B. both same
    C. tax-only differences
    D. inventory effect only
49. Depreciation is a non-cash expense because
    A. it does not involve cash outflow in the period of charge (it spreads past cash outflows)
    B. it involves immediate cash outflow
    C. it increases cash
    D. it is a payable
50. The accounting entity concept requires that
    A. business transactions are separate from owner’s personal transactions
    B. both combined always
    C. owner’s personal expenses treated as business only
    D. none

Accountancy — Answers

1:A 2:A 3:B 4:B 5:A 6:A 7:A 8:A 9:A 10:B
11:A 12:B 13:A 14:A 15:B 16:B 17:A 18:B 19:B 20:B
21:A 22:A 23:A 24:A 25:A 26:A 27:A 28:B 29:A 30:B
31:A 32:A 33:A 34:A 35:A 36:A 37:A 38:A 39:A 40:B
41:A 42:A 43:A 44:A 45:A 46:B 47:A 48:A 49:A 50:A

10) Computer Science / Informatics Practices — 50 MCQs

1. The basic unit of data in a computer is
   A. Bit
   B. Byte
   C. Word
   D. Nibble
2. Which language is low-level?
   A. Assembly language
   B. Python
   C. Java
   D. SQL
3. CPU stands for
   A. Central Processing Unit
   B. Central Program Unit
   C. Computer Processing Unit
   D. Control Processing Unit
4. An algorithm is
   A. a step-by-step procedure to solve a problem
   B. a programming language
   C. a hardware component
   D. a database
5. Which data structure uses LIFO?
   A. Queue
   B. Stack
   C. Tree
   D. Graph
6. OS stands for
   A. Operating System
   B. Open Source
   C. Online Server
   D. Optical System
7. The command to list files in Unix is
   A. ls
   B. dir
   C. list
   D. show
8. HTML is used for
   A. structuring web pages (markup)
   B. styling pages only
   C. server-side scripting only
   D. database queries
9. CSS stands for
   A. Cascading Style Sheets
   B. Computer Style System
   C. Cascading Script Sheets
   D. Common Style Syntax
10. SQL is used to
    A. query and manage relational databases
    B. style web pages
    C. handle images only
    D. design CPU architecture
11. Which is a markup language?
    A. XML
    B. C++
    C. Java
    D. Python
12. In networking, IP stands for
    A. Internet Protocol
    B. Internal Program
    C. Internet Process
    D. Information Protocol
13. The full form of URL is
    A. Uniform Resource Locator
    B. Universal Resource Link
    C. Unified Resource Locator
    D. Uniform Reference Link
14. In programming, a loop that never ends is called
    A. finite loop
    B. infinite loop
    C. while loop
    D. conditional loop
15. Which is a relational database?
    A. MySQL
    B. MongoDB
    C. Redis
    D. Neo4j
16. A function that calls itself is known as
    A. iterative function
    B. recursive function
    C. lambda function
    D. anonymous function
17. In Python, list indexing starts at
    A. 0
    B. 1
    C. −1
    D. 2
18. Which device connects multiple network devices and forwards data based on MAC addresses?
    A. Hub
    B. Switch
    C. Router
    D. Modem
19. The primary memory that stores data temporarily for fast access is
    A. RAM (Random Access Memory)
    B. ROM
    C. Hard disk
    D. Optical drive
20. Software that converts high-level source code to machine code is called
    A. compiler
    B. interpreter
    C. editor
    D. assembler
21. Which sorting algorithm has average complexity O(n log n)?
    A. Quick sort
    B. Bubble sort
    C. Linear search
    D. Insertion sort
22. A binary tree where each node has at most two children is called
    A. binary tree
    B. ternary tree
    C. linked list
    D. graph
23. Which of the following is an example of open-source programming language?
    A. Python
    B. MATLAB
    C. SAS
    D. SPSS
24. Which HTML tag is used for inserting an image?
    A. <img>
    B. <image>
    C. <picture>
    D. <src>
25. The purpose of DNS is to
    A. translate domain names to IP addresses
    B. send emails only
    C. host websites only
    D. encrypt data only
26. Which is not a programming paradigm?
    A. Object-oriented
    B. Procedural
    C. Functional
    D. Geological
27. Which is an example of secondary storage?
    A. SSD/HDD
    B. RAM
    C. CPU cache
    D. Register
28. The process of finding and fixing errors in code is called
    A. compiling
    B. debugging
    C. linking
    D. executing
29. Firewalls are used to
    A. protect networks from unauthorized access
    B. cool CPUs
    C. store data
    D. design web pages
30. Big-O notation describes
    A. time/space complexity of algorithms (growth rate)
    B. file size only
    C. CPU speed only
    D. memory addressing
31. In OOP, inheritance allows
    A. reuse of attributes and methods from parent class to child class
    B. only security features
    C. database connections only
    D. faster CPU operations
32. Which is a NoSQL database?
    A. MongoDB
    B. MySQL
    C. PostgreSQL
    D. Oracle
33. HTTPS differs from HTTP because it uses
    A. encryption (SSL/TLS) for secure communication
    B. faster transmission only
    C. different port only
    D. different HTML standard
34. The basic logic gate that outputs 1 only when both inputs are 1 is
    A. OR
    B. AND
    C. NOT
    D. XOR
35. A primary key in a database table should be
    A. unique and not null
    B. duplicated often
    C. null allowed
    D. text only
36. Which of the following is a markup and data interchange format?
    A. JSON (JavaScript Object Notation)
    B. Assembly
    C. Fortran
    D. C
37. Cloud computing offers
    A. on-demand network access to shared computing resources (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS)
    B. only hardware purchases
    C. only local backup
    D. offline services only
38. An IP address version used widely now is
    A. IPv4 and IPv6 (IPv4 common) — choose IPv4 as common widely used
    B. IPv2 only
    C. IPv7 only
    D. IPv1 only
39. Which is used to style web pages?
    A. JavaScript
    B. CSS
    C. SQL
    D. Python
40. In databases, normalization is done to
    A. reduce redundancy and improve integrity
    B. increase redundancy only
    C. slow queries
    D. remove primary keys
41. What is the output of boolean expression (True AND False) OR True?
    A. True
    B. False
    C. Null
    D. Error
42. The process that manages multiple programs on CPU is called
    A. multitasking (process scheduling)
    B. single-threading only
    C. scripting only
    D. compiling
43. Hexadecimal system is base
    A. 16
    B. 8
    C. 2
    D. 10
44. In computer networking, a MAC address is assigned to
    A. Network Interface Card (NIC)
    B. Router only
    C. IP only
    D. Domain name
45. A compiler performs which main tasks?
    A. lexical analysis, parsing, semantic analysis, code generation
    B. cooking only
    C. translation to SQL only
    D. running app only
46. Which data type is immutable in Python?
    A. list
    B. tuple (immutable)
    C. dictionary
    D. set
47. The basic HTML element for a hyperlink uses attribute
    A. href in <a> tag
    B. src in <a> tag
    C. link only
    D. url only
48. In object-oriented design, encapsulation refers to
    A. bundling data and methods and restricting direct access
    B. writing all code in one function
    C. unrelated classes only
    D. hardware integration
49. Which protocol is used to transfer files over the internet securely?
    A. FTP (not secure)
    B. SFTP (secure)
    C. HTTP only
    D. SMTP
50. Which of the following is NOT an operating system?
    A. Windows
    B. Linux
    C. Photoshop
    D. macOS

Computer Science — Answers

1:A 2:A 3:A 4:A 5:B 6:A 7:A 8:A 9:A 10:A
11:A 12:A 13:A 14:B 15:A 16:B 17:A 18:B 19:A 20:A
21:A 22:A 23:A 24:A 25:A 26:D 27:A 28:B 29:A 30:A
31:A 32:A 33:A 34:B 35:A 36:A 37:A 38:A 39:B 40:A
41:A 42:A 43:A 44:A 45:A 46:B 47:A 48:A 49:B 50:C